Hi guys having trouble understanding minimum defense frequency as model says MDF = 1 opponent's bet /(opponent's bet + pot) and example says ; you raise to 3bbs and your opponent 3bets to 10 bbs . MDF= 110/(10+3+1+.5)=31 % i do not understand in bracket 10 [opponents bet ]+ 3 [our raise] = 1 + .5 and i do not understand from where comes this 1 and .5 and this 0.5 is it consideed as 0.5 or 5. Please help.
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Minimum defense frequency question
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You've almost got it.
The 1 and the 0.5 are the big blind and the small blind which are included as they are already in the pot. Inside the brackets we have opponent's bet which is the 10, and the pot which is 3 (our raise) and 1 (the big blind) and 0.5 (the small blind).
Does that make sense?
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how do you know small blind is 0.5 and bb is 1.00 ?? [generally understandable i think answer could be that it is only possible that they can be small blind and big blind as they are obligatory minimum bet just you can confirm it.
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The equation is: 1  10 / (10 + 3 + 1 + 0.5)
This is very different to: 1  10 / 10 + 3 + 1 + 0.5
I found an article online to help explain how to work these out: https://www.mathsisfun.com/operationorderbodmas.html
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I believe the way the equation should be brackedted is like this:
1  (10 / (10 + 3 + 1 + 0.5)).
This would make the answer:
1  (10 / 14.5)
1  0.69
= 0.31.
From what I understand MDF is the inverse of calculating how much Villain needs to make us fold for opening any two cards to be profitable. So, for them opening any two cards to be profitable Hero would need to fold "Villain bet/(Villain bet + pot) %" of the time. Our MDF should be the opposite of that.
Using your example, if you open the pot for 3BB, there's currently 4.5BB in the pot (your 3BB, 0.5BB for the SB, and 1BB for the BB). If Villain 3bets to 10BB, he's risking 10BB to win 14.5BB (his 10BB + the 4.5BB already in the pot). Using that calculation above he needs you to fold 69% of the time to automatically profit. So you need to call at least 31% of the time. This is the same number that the equation above comes up with once you bracket it in the correct way.
[edit]
Also I see that you were confused about the values of the SB and BB. Just to show you that these would come out with the same answer, let's say we're playing at 0.05/0.10c, and let's switch it from BB into actualy money.
So, you open for $0.30, Villain raises to $1. SB is $0.05, BB is $0.10. The calculation would be the following:
1  (1 / (1 + 0.30 + 0.05 + 0.10))
1  (1 / (1.45))
1  0.69
= 0.31
31%
You end up with the same answer when you switch it from BB to actual $ values.Last edited by Automaton; 01112021, 06:00 AM.
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1  10 / (10 + 3 + 1 + 0.5)  this is correct. The extra brackets you add do not change anything. Again I'd refer you here: https://www.mathsisfun.com/operationorderbodmas.html
The rest of your post is clear and correct.

Yep you're right. I added the brackets because OP seemed to be getting "9 : 14.5", implying they were doing 110, so I thought the added brackets might make it clearer. But like you say, BODMAS/BIDMAS makes that clear too (and is more mathematically/syntactically correct).

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