In the preflop charts full ring, 44-99 are a 3bet bluff from the SB against CO open, while 22-99 are a 3bet bluff from the SB against a BTN open.
My questions are:
1. Why are these a 3bet bluff from the SB but not any other position? There is no use of middle to small pairs from any other position. 3bet bluffs are typically low suited As and low-medium suited connectors.
2. Would it be a mistake to remove most of them (22-66) and replace them with lower suited one-gappers?
OR
3. Is it OK to 3bet them as a bluff, but then put these pairs in your check-fold range for the most part?
The problem I run into is that these are very tough to play postflop. You very rarely flop anything great, then what? You don't block any big cards, you don't even get to have a backdoor flush draw to go on.
I can cbet if villain has a high cbet fold percentage, but that is about it.
Thoughts?
My questions are:
1. Why are these a 3bet bluff from the SB but not any other position? There is no use of middle to small pairs from any other position. 3bet bluffs are typically low suited As and low-medium suited connectors.
2. Would it be a mistake to remove most of them (22-66) and replace them with lower suited one-gappers?
OR
3. Is it OK to 3bet them as a bluff, but then put these pairs in your check-fold range for the most part?
The problem I run into is that these are very tough to play postflop. You very rarely flop anything great, then what? You don't block any big cards, you don't even get to have a backdoor flush draw to go on.
I can cbet if villain has a high cbet fold percentage, but that is about it.
Thoughts?
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